I have been taking Lamictal 300 mg for about 12 years now but on time every time for about 10 years. For the last 10 1/2 years I am thankfully seizure free with medication as I feel it would not be a comfortable thing for me to stop my medicine being that I have children and wouldn't want them to see mommy like that God willing! My question is when it is considered "controlled" or in "remission" does that mean that the medication controls it even with triggers. I asked that because I have been sleep deprived, more anxiety with age, stress, etc.. over the last 10 years than when I had them more often. I'm assuming that means that the medication is working even with those situations occurring correct? I just wasn't understanding the controlled and remission that I was reading I guess. They started at 18 (grandmal) and my last one was at 26 and I had about 9 total within those years. My triggers were all different, as there would be times I was neither stress, sleep deprived, or anything when it would happen (possibly the seizure meds they were trying were not working as well). My last one was assumed that the Depo Provera shot and me not taking medication the way it should be taken caused my last one because once again I had none of the triggers. Doctors never came up with a reason as my EEG and cat scans were always normal so they figured "maybe" it's lack of sleep and stress with a question mark...just a guess pretty much as they didn't know (and I've been to several different neurologists). The last one said he didn't believe that was the case because it's just doesn't add up to him because too many people would have seizures with lack of sleep and stress and that the other neurologist guess was not accurate to him. He said as long as your medicaiton is working, nothing we need to do. So does controlled and remission mean that as long as I continue the way I have with medicine all should continue to go well?